Rosie:

Yes, a mulato would normally be the child of an español and a negra, though in latter years of the colony, the term came to mean many different mixes of black and European, which were earlier known as:

1. De Español y d’India; Mestisa
2. De español y Mestiza, Castiza
3. De Español y Castiza, Español
4. De Español y Negra, Mulata
5. De Español y Mulata; Morisca
6. De Español y Morisca; Albina
7. De Español y Albina; Torna atrás
8. De Español y Torna atrás; Tente en el aire
9. De Negro y d’India, China cambuja.
10. De Chino cambujo y d’India; Loba
11. De Lobo y d’India, Albarazado
12. De Albarazado y Mestiza, Barcino
13 De Indio y Barcina; Zambuigua
14. De Castizo y Mestiza; Chamizo
15. De Mestizo y d’India; Coyote
16. Indios gentiles (Heathen Indians)

As far as the term “español” in these certificates, it merely means that the person was of European descent, not necessarily born in Spain and in latter years, it could actually be someone who was of mixed race but appeared to be of European descent as the caste system seemed to be less accurate over time. Someone who was born in Spain would be referred to as “peninsular” or specifically “de los Reinos de Castilla” or whatever other country they were from and such a person would require a special permit to marry since it had to be ascertained that they were not married in their country of origin. You will definitely know when you stumble upon such a non-Mexico born ancestor.

mulatto means half white and half black.
espanol could be mean peninsular or criollo there wasnttwo much of a difference in terms for espanol. Its justpeninsular means borb in the peninsula.

Fourth means they were third cousins.
Espanol was used as white, we know that there were portuguese, irish, germans, italians english etc in Colonial Mexico, and all would have been listed as espanol regardless of european origin. Espanol (which means of Spanish descent) would be used as equivalent to Caucasian today.
-Daniel
_________________________________________________________________

While we are on the subject of the caste system …. I came across the term
“Yndia Lavoxia” the writing is very clear so I’m pretty sure that is what it
says. Can anyone shed some light on the meaning of Lavoxia? If it helps this
record came form the Tonila area of Jalisco.

-Angelina-

Angelina,

The term “Yndia Lavoria” means “indian laborer”. In other words, someone
who worked as a laborer at a house or hacienda.

Bill Figueroa

—– Original Message —–
From: “Angelina Markle”
To:
Sent: Thursday, September 24, 2009 3:38 PM
Subject: Re: [Nuestros Ranchos] caste question – “Yndia Lavoxia”

While we are on the subject of the caste system …. I came across the term
“Yndia Lavoxia” the writing is very clear so I’m pretty sure that is what it
says. Can anyone shed some light on the meaning of Lavoxia? If it helps this
record came form the Tonila area of Jalisco.

-Angelina-

Thanks Bill – that’s what I thought – just needed someone else to confirm my
suspicions. -Angelina-

—–Original Message—–

Angelina,

The term “Yndia Lavoria” means “indian laborer”. In other words, someone
who worked as a laborer at a house or hacienda.

Bill Figueroa

Good Morning! Two topics I have run into several places. I’m going to refer you to http://www.newadvent.org/cathen/04264a.htm scroll down to mode of calculation. Consanguatity is tricky to figure. Mulatto is usually half european…..however, sometimes son or daughter of someone who was half.

> —– Original Message —–
> From: rcordovamba@aol.com
> To: research@lists.nuestrosranchos.org
> Subject: [Nuestros Ranchos] mulatos and consanguinity
> Date: Thu, 24 Sep 2009 00:25:30 -0700 (PDT)
>
>
> I just received today two copies of the marriage certificates of my
> great grandparents (from 1822 and 1797). I discovered that one
> couple were mulatos libres and another couple was mulato libre and
> espanola viuda and gives the name of the former husband instead of
> the names of her parents. One of these couples were related by
> fourth degree of consanguinity. Was a mulato the offspring of Black
> and a Spanish?
>
> Was an espanol someone who was born in Spain or is it possible that
> she was a criolla? I am trying to find her place of birth.
>
> Is fourth degree of consanguinity a first cousin, offspring of our tios?
>
> Rosie Cordova

Dear Anglelina:
I have come across Indio Lavorio on the wedding document of Panisio Alviso in the late 1700’s. I was told in means converted Indian or an Indian who had been converted to Christianity.

Maureen Bejar

THIS IS WHAT I  FOUND,

I THINKS THE REAL WORD IS        “INDIO NABORIO”     WHICH MEANS:        
 Indian of intermediate status between slave and free who was forced to work for a particular Spaniard or Spanish town.

YOU CAN FIN THIS TERM IN SAME OF THE EARLY  MANUSCRIPTS OF THE LOS ALTO’S HISTORY  TOWS,

HERE IS A GOOD DICTIONARY OF COLONIAL SPANISH TERMS:

http://www.somosprimos.com/spanishterms/spanishterms.htm

SALUDOS.

LUIS GONZALEZ JIMENEZ.

________________________________
From: “mytmo@netnitco.net”
To: research@lists.nuestrosranchos.org
Sent: Sunday, September 27, 2009 2:04:13 AM
Subject: [Nuestros Ranchos] Indio Lavorio or India Lavoria

Dear Anglelina:
  I have come across Indio Lavorio on the wedding document of Panisio Alviso in the late 1700’s.  I was told in means converted Indian or an Indian who had been converted to Christianity.

Maureen Bejar

Thank you Luis – I added that page to my favorites, it’s a great reference.
-Angelina-

—–Original Message—–

HERE IS A GOOD DICTIONARY OF COLONIAL SPANISH TERMS:

http://www.somosprimos.com/spanishterms/spanishterms.htm

SALUDOS.

LUIS GONZALEZ JIMENEZ.

Luis,

The same reference you gave Angelina gives the meaning of “Laborio” as a
Hacienda worker or resident, which is the correct meaning.

Bill Figueroa

—- Original Message —–
From: “Luis Gonzalez”
To:
Sent: Sunday, September 27, 2009 10:29 AM
Subject: Re: [Nuestros Ranchos] Indio Lavorio or India Lavoria

THIS IS WHAT I FOUND,

I THINKS THE REAL WORD IS “INDIO NABORIO” WHICH MEANS:
Indian of intermediate status between slave and free who was forced to work
for a particular Spaniard or Spanish town.

YOU CAN FIN THIS TERM IN SAME OF THE EARLY MANUSCRIPTS OF THE LOS ALTO’S
HISTORY TOWS,

HERE IS A GOOD DICTIONARY OF COLONIAL SPANISH TERMS:

http://www.somosprimos.com/spanishterms/spanishterms.htm

SALUDOS.

LUIS GONZALEZ JIMENEZ.

________________________________
From: “mytmo@netnitco.net”
To: research@lists.nuestrosranchos.org
Sent: Sunday, September 27, 2009 2:04:13 AM
Subject: [Nuestros Ranchos] Indio Lavorio or India Lavoria

Dear Anglelina:
I have come across Indio Lavorio on the wedding document of Panisio Alviso
in the late 1700’s. I was told in means converted Indian or an Indian who
had been converted to Christianity.

Maureen Bejar

Dear Luis:
Thank you for the link. So when I was told converted, it was not so much converted to the religion, but converted to the way of life or a laborer. Just out of curiosity, I wonder how an Indio would have been able to link up with a full Espanola, as was the case of Juana Maria Gonzales and Jose Ignacio Albiso. If the pressure was on for Espanol to marry Espanol and full blooded women were not so numerous, then it seems like Juan Maria would have had numerous suitors that would have been vying for her hand in marriage. Seems odd to me that her marriage was to a full Indian. Am I missing something or maybe the racist undertones were just a religious thing rather than what was going on in the general population. Does anyone else have any thoughts on this?

Maureen Bejar

I think sometimes we equate “Spanish” with wealthy and during the early days there were many Spanish people who were as poor as the Yndios they worked and lived with.  Not everyone was upper “class” plus there were Yndios who had wealth and they were the  ones who married Espanolas sometimes.  The church still classified these children by their skin color since I have a family with an Espanola mother and Yndio father and the children are listed differently, one Yndio another Espanol and also a Mestizo oh and one was listed Mulato!  This was in Jerez, Zacatecas.

Linda in B.C.

— On Sun, 9/27/09, mytmo@netnitco.net wrote:

From: mytmo@netnitco.net
Subject: [Nuestros Ranchos] Indio Lavorio
To: research@lists.nuestrosranchos.org
Date: Sunday, September 27, 2009, 1:37 PM

Dear Luis:
  Thank you for the link.  So when I was told converted, it was not so much converted to the religion, but converted to the way of life or a laborer.  Just out of curiosity,  I wonder how an Indio would have been able to link up with a full Espanola, as was the case of Juana Maria Gonzales and Jose Ignacio Albiso.  If the pressure was on for Espanol to marry Espanol and full blooded women were not so numerous, then it seems like Juan Maria would have had numerous suitors that would have been vying for her hand in marriage.  Seems odd to me that her marriage was to a full Indian. Am I missing something or maybe the racist undertones were just a religious thing rather than what was going on in the general population.  Does anyone else have any thoughts on this? 
Maureen Bejar

THIS IS VERY IMPORTANT TO TAKE INTO ACCOUNT,

THERE WERE  POOR  ESPANOLES AS WELL  THEY WHERE NOT AS LUCKY OR THEY DID NOT RECEIVED ANY INHERITAGE OR THEY JUST FALL IN DISGRACE AND LOST IT  OR MISS USE IT.
ALSO AT THE SAME TIME THERE WERE MANY WEALTHY INDIOS TOO.

OR VERY SIMPLE THERE WERE PEOPLE  THAT  DID NOT CARE ABOUT THE SOCIAL OR RACIAL STATUS, SO THEY INTERMARRIED  WITH OTHER  RACES.

SO I AGREED  100 PER CENT  WITH YOU  LINDA.

THERE IS AN OLD SAYING:

IF YOU  LIVE IN A FARM YOU FALL IN LOVE WITH A COW, MEANING THAT IF THERE IS NO OTHER PEOPLE AROUND AS IT WAS THE CASE BACK THEN  YOU WOULD MARRIED ANY BODY NEAR YOU  DON’T YOU THINK?

LUIS GONZALEZ JIMENEZ

In response to this:
“Just out of curiosity, I wonder how an Indio would have been able to
link up with a full Espanola, as was the case of Juana Maria Gonzales and Jose
Ignacio Albiso. If the pressure was on for Espanol to marry Espanol and
full blooded women were not so numerous, then it seems like Juan Maria would
have had numerous suitors that would have been vying for her hand in
marriage. Seems odd to me that her marriage was to a full Indian. Am I missing
something or maybe the racist undertones were just a religious thing rather
than what was going on in the general population. Does anyone else have
any thoughts on this? ”

Didn’t I read on this site that full-blooded “Indios” did not have last
names – except the Tlaxcaltecas? If Jose Iganacio Albiso was said to be an
“Indio”, and he had a last name, chances are that either he was Tlaxcalteco
– who were considered “civilized” by the Spaniards, hence permitted to have
a last name OR he was not full blooded “Indio”. Just a thought….